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Okay ... I must be missing something but will give the only, simple answer I know.
Elizabeth II, only to the English, following on after Elizabeth Tudor., who never had an ordinal number as the first of the name don't until another comes along.
Elizabeth I to the Scots, as she is the first to them .. as Elizabeth Tudor didn't rule them as they were independent.
Although Elizabeth II is entitled to use the style Elizabeth II in Scotland and in the states that were once former dominions, for reasons explained in this article.
That was a good link ... It's all a bit more involved than I thought Boots.
I can remember in my youth chatting to some Scots in the local pub. Nice friendly people.
Until ... a row got going about this Elizabeth I or Elizabeth II thing ... and by the time I'd wriggled to safety a fight had blown up in the car park and the police had to be called.
That was a good link ... It's all a bit more involved than I thought Boots.
I can remember in my youth chatting to some Scots in the local pub. Nice friendly people.
Until ... a row got going about this Elizabeth I or Elizabeth II thing ... and by the time I'd wriggled to safety a fight had blown up in the car park and the police had to be called.
ooo-err ... the fight was nowt to do with you, I suppose?
Having said that I don't know where the Welsh stand on this before they were conquered by Edward I... whether they recongise William I, William II or the Norman and Angevin kings.
I'm jealous of her surname of "II". It would be so much easier to sign my name off with "II" instead of my long-winded real surname.
She also has another surname too, which is "R". Apparently.