Okay, I'll use part of the explanatory notes your government provides specifically for this purpose. https://www.gov.uk/government/public...agreement-bill (it's the third of the documents)

Remaining implementation of the Withdrawal Agreement

Article 4 requires that the provisions of the Withdrawal Agreement and the provisions of
Union law made applicable by the Withdrawal Agreement produce “the same legal effects” in
the UK as those which they produce within the EU and its Member States. In broad terms
(and subject to the provisions of Article 4 itself), the intention is that the Withdrawal
Agreement and the provisions of EU law applied by the Withdrawal Agreement have the
same legal effects in UK domestic law as attached to EU law while were a Member State. One
effect of this is that legal or natural persons will be able to rely directly on some of the
provisions of the Withdrawal Agreement before the UK courts.

IT ENDS ON 31st DECEMBER !

Read it !

No sensible debate possible with you. Why do you always have to start bickering?

I'm explaining to you (and so is Percy) what ending a treaty means.

You seem to thing when a law is repealed it is still law - that's the problem. You just can't understand basic concepts no matter how simple they are.

Ending a treaty is not the same as repealing a bill. Why should the UK repeal the (EU) withdrawal agreement bill?

Oh dear ^^^

What is it my dear?

Because you have absolutely no clue about any of this.

Says the man who doesn't know the difference between ending a treaty and repealing an act of parliament.